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	Comments on: Concessions &#8211; When &#038; How Much to Adjust	</title>
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		<title>
		By: Small town Guy		</title>
		<link>https://appraisersblogs.com/appraisal/concessions/#comment-42885</link>

		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Small town Guy]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Wed, 19 Jun 2024 17:36:00 +0000</pubDate>
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					<description><![CDATA[Utter and complete BS. Common sense- a house is listed for $400,000. On the market a normal DOM. Goes under contract for $400,000 with no concessions. Two weeks later, $3500 in concessions made to keep the deal going. No change in sale price. It does NOT require adjustment. All these “national experts” see are stats and not real life. I refuse to make an adjustment based on a GSE “policy” instead of real life.]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Utter and complete BS. Common sense- a house is listed for $400,000. On the market a normal DOM. Goes under contract for $400,000 with no concessions. Two weeks later, $3500 in concessions made to keep the deal going. No change in sale price. It does NOT require adjustment. All these “national experts” see are stats and not real life. I refuse to make an adjustment based on a GSE “policy” instead of real life.</p>
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		<title>
		By: Marty		</title>
		<link>https://appraisersblogs.com/appraisal/concessions/#comment-21686</link>

		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Marty]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Tue, 26 Jun 2018 10:35:34 +0000</pubDate>
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					<description><![CDATA[In reply to &lt;a href=&quot;https://appraisersblogs.com/appraisal/concessions/#comment-20593&quot;&gt;Jman&lt;/a&gt;.

Sorry Jman, your are completely wrong. 1st, Seller concessions are widely discussed because no authority has put in writing what we all already know. 2nd market value is the only number you should be concerned with when appraising for a normal FDIC bank loan. Never will you see any other type of value wanted on an engagement letter when someone is either purchasing or re-financing. 3rd, we&#039;re not talking about repairs here, if we were, then we would also discuss condition etc. So my theory is sound..4th, a seller concessions in the form of cash to the buyer can NEVER be paid without affecting the sales price. Hey but don&#039;t take my word here&#039;s what Fannie Mae says &lt;strong&gt;&lt;em&gt;(Fannie Mae on Seller Concessions (FAQ) &lt;/em&gt;&lt;/strong&gt;&lt;em&gt;How should the appraiser determine appropriate adjustments for sales concessions on the comparables?&lt;/em&gt;

&lt;em&gt;The appraiser must consider the impact a sales concession had on the transaction. The adjustments must reflect the difference between what the comparables actually sold for with the sales concessions and what they would have sold for without the concessions, so that the dollar amount of the adjustments approximates the reaction of the market to the concessions.&lt;/em&gt;

&lt;strong&gt;(Fannie Mae Update SEL Announcement 2017-01, January 31, 2017.)&lt;/strong&gt;

With this update, we have clarified that appraisers may use dollar for dollar adjustments for financing or sales concessions when such an adjustment approximates the local market&#039;s response to these types of concessions. This clarification is effective immediately.

If you don&#039;t want to believe Fannie, Here&#039;s what the The Appraisal Foundation say in a letter to congress: &lt;em&gt;&lt;strong&gt;(&lt;/strong&gt; on Seller Concessions &lt;/em&gt;&lt;i&gt;In developing an opinion of market value, an appraiser must take into consideration the effect of any sales concessions on the market value of the real property.  Therefore, it was determined that seller concessions are typical in the area, but differ greatly in amounts depending on the buying power of the buyer(s) and the price of the home being sold. It was also discovered by personal interviews with sales agents, builders and sales staff, that the price of a new purchase and or resale home could be lowered by the exact amount of seller concessions offered instead of giving the seller concessions, thereby having a direct effect on the sales price and therefore adjusted out.&lt;/i&gt;

And, my words initially were taken from a letter drafted by the Appraisal Institute. So friends, I say again. Any seller concessions given in cash has a clear and direct affect on the sales price and must be adjusted out dollar for dollar.]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>In reply to <a target="_blank" href="https://appraisersblogs.com/appraisal/concessions/#comment-20593">Jman</a>.</p>
<p>Sorry Jman, your are completely wrong. 1st, Seller concessions are widely discussed because no authority has put in writing what we all already know. 2nd market value is the only number you should be concerned with when appraising for a normal FDIC bank loan. Never will you see any other type of value wanted on an engagement letter when someone is either purchasing or re-financing. 3rd, we&#8217;re not talking about repairs here, if we were, then we would also discuss condition etc. So my theory is sound..4th, a seller concessions in the form of cash to the buyer can NEVER be paid without affecting the sales price. Hey but don&#8217;t take my word here&#8217;s what Fannie Mae says <strong><em>(Fannie Mae on Seller Concessions (FAQ) </em></strong><em>How should the appraiser determine appropriate adjustments for sales concessions on the comparables?</em></p>
<p><em>The appraiser must consider the impact a sales concession had on the transaction. The adjustments must reflect the difference between what the comparables actually sold for with the sales concessions and what they would have sold for without the concessions, so that the dollar amount of the adjustments approximates the reaction of the market to the concessions.</em></p>
<p><strong>(Fannie Mae Update SEL Announcement 2017-01, January 31, 2017.)</strong></p>
<p>With this update, we have clarified that appraisers may use dollar for dollar adjustments for financing or sales concessions when such an adjustment approximates the local market&#8217;s response to these types of concessions. This clarification is effective immediately.</p>
<p>If you don&#8217;t want to believe Fannie, Here&#8217;s what the The Appraisal Foundation say in a letter to congress: <em><strong>(</strong> on Seller Concessions </em><i>In developing an opinion of market value, an appraiser must take into consideration the effect of any sales concessions on the market value of the real property.  Therefore, it was determined that seller concessions are typical in the area, but differ greatly in amounts depending on the buying power of the buyer(s) and the price of the home being sold. It was also discovered by personal interviews with sales agents, builders and sales staff, that the price of a new purchase and or resale home could be lowered by the exact amount of seller concessions offered instead of giving the seller concessions, thereby having a direct effect on the sales price and therefore adjusted out.</i></p>
<p>And, my words initially were taken from a letter drafted by the Appraisal Institute. So friends, I say again. Any seller concessions given in cash has a clear and direct affect on the sales price and must be adjusted out dollar for dollar.</p>
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		<title>
		By: Jman		</title>
		<link>https://appraisersblogs.com/appraisal/concessions/#comment-20594</link>

		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Jman]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Tue, 10 Apr 2018 13:25:19 +0000</pubDate>
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					<description><![CDATA[Previous post should have said - the appraiser is NOT part of the negotiation of that sale. Text would not scroll to edit text.

Its simple - if the concession caused the sales price to increase to above market value (which will be seen when analyzing on a grid) then make an adjustment to bring that sale back in line with a zero concession sale or sales. Without a zero concession sale (either naturally or one that you adjusted to zero) then the appraiser has no market support for an adjustment or lack of one.

There are too many assumptions by the mortgage industry about how any concession (and I&#039;m not talking about a title policy or such things typically paid by seller or buyer, but money paid by seller towards buyer&#039;s closing costs) influences or doesn&#039;t influence a sales price.  

The authors comment about cars as seller concessions from HUD is exactly the type of stuff I heard from HUD in a conference call several years back. They said big screen TV&#039;s - I said there were no big screen TV&#039;s being giving away in the sales that I used and I had zero concession sales to provide support for my concession adjustments or lack thereof.  By the way, mortgage lenders can only accept 6 points as a concession- so this talk of 10-100K concession is just that. 

I managed the regional appraisal dept for the mortgage company of the nation&#039;s 2nd largest builder for 16 years and that is the way we handled seller concessions - by pairing with a zero concession sale and HUD nor anyone else had an issue with that. It just basic appraising.]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Previous post should have said &#8211; the appraiser is NOT part of the negotiation of that sale. Text would not scroll to edit text.</p>
<p>Its simple &#8211; if the concession caused the sales price to increase to above market value (which will be seen when analyzing on a grid) then make an adjustment to bring that sale back in line with a zero concession sale or sales. Without a zero concession sale (either naturally or one that you adjusted to zero) then the appraiser has no market support for an adjustment or lack of one.</p>
<p>There are too many assumptions by the mortgage industry about how any concession (and I&#8217;m not talking about a title policy or such things typically paid by seller or buyer, but money paid by seller towards buyer&#8217;s closing costs) influences or doesn&#8217;t influence a sales price.  </p>
<p>The authors comment about cars as seller concessions from HUD is exactly the type of stuff I heard from HUD in a conference call several years back. They said big screen TV&#8217;s &#8211; I said there were no big screen TV&#8217;s being giving away in the sales that I used and I had zero concession sales to provide support for my concession adjustments or lack thereof.  By the way, mortgage lenders can only accept 6 points as a concession- so this talk of 10-100K concession is just that. </p>
<p>I managed the regional appraisal dept for the mortgage company of the nation&#8217;s 2nd largest builder for 16 years and that is the way we handled seller concessions &#8211; by pairing with a zero concession sale and HUD nor anyone else had an issue with that. It just basic appraising.</p>
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		<title>
		By: Jman		</title>
		<link>https://appraisersblogs.com/appraisal/concessions/#comment-20593</link>

		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Jman]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Tue, 10 Apr 2018 12:48:07 +0000</pubDate>
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					<description><![CDATA[Marty. If it was as simple as you say, then there would be no need to discuss seller concessions and all concessions would be removed. Being typical has nothing to do with adjustment but appraisers should be analyzing the affect if any on the sales price and since you are part of the negotiation of that sale then it must be extracted from the market based on paired sales.  You make the assumption that market value is only one number. If you trade repairs for concessions it blows your theory about seller taking less - that&#039;s not an option. Your analysis suffers from what many do - using portions of the definition of value instead of using it in its entirety. A concession can be paid without affecting final sales price.]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Marty. If it was as simple as you say, then there would be no need to discuss seller concessions and all concessions would be removed. Being typical has nothing to do with adjustment but appraisers should be analyzing the affect if any on the sales price and since you are part of the negotiation of that sale then it must be extracted from the market based on paired sales.  You make the assumption that market value is only one number. If you trade repairs for concessions it blows your theory about seller taking less &#8211; that&#8217;s not an option. Your analysis suffers from what many do &#8211; using portions of the definition of value instead of using it in its entirety. A concession can be paid without affecting final sales price.</p>
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		<title>
		By: Marty		</title>
		<link>https://appraisersblogs.com/appraisal/concessions/#comment-20592</link>

		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Marty]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Tue, 10 Apr 2018 12:39:58 +0000</pubDate>
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					<description><![CDATA[Hi Lee Lansford, your article on seller concessions is very good, however its missing one very important bullet. And that is (The purpose of adjusting comparable sales for concessions is to provide an indication of value of the subject property based on the definition of value. Even though the sales concession might be “typical” of the market and paid by the seller in virtually all transactions, &lt;strong&gt;the sale price is impacted by the concession&lt;/strong&gt;. Furthermore, if the concessions are related to financing, the properties purchased with cash are atypical of the market and must be adjusted accordingly. Not adjusting for sales or financing concessions, even though seller paid concessions might be prevalent in the market, is not proper guidance when the definition of &lt;em&gt;value includes a price unaffected by sales or financing&lt;/em&gt; concessions.) In addition, this is easily proven. In my 18 years of appraising, and interviewing other real estate professionals. Never have I seen one instance where a seller would not reduce the sale price by the amount of any seller concessions offered if the buyer decided not to take the concessions. Why? Simple, the seller now pays less commission on a lower sale price, &#038; both the seller &#038; buyer pay less in closing on a lower price. Seller concessions are only given to help the buyer afford the house without having to come out of pocket to pay closing, but in turn raises the home price for which the buyer is now financing... No Smart!]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Hi Lee Lansford, your article on seller concessions is very good, however its missing one very important bullet. And that is (The purpose of adjusting comparable sales for concessions is to provide an indication of value of the subject property based on the definition of value. Even though the sales concession might be “typical” of the market and paid by the seller in virtually all transactions, <strong>the sale price is impacted by the concession</strong>. Furthermore, if the concessions are related to financing, the properties purchased with cash are atypical of the market and must be adjusted accordingly. Not adjusting for sales or financing concessions, even though seller paid concessions might be prevalent in the market, is not proper guidance when the definition of <em>value includes a price unaffected by sales or financing</em> concessions.) In addition, this is easily proven. In my 18 years of appraising, and interviewing other real estate professionals. Never have I seen one instance where a seller would not reduce the sale price by the amount of any seller concessions offered if the buyer decided not to take the concessions. Why? Simple, the seller now pays less commission on a lower sale price, &amp; both the seller &amp; buyer pay less in closing on a lower price. Seller concessions are only given to help the buyer afford the house without having to come out of pocket to pay closing, but in turn raises the home price for which the buyer is now financing&#8230; No Smart!</p>
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		<title>
		By: Jman		</title>
		<link>https://appraisersblogs.com/appraisal/concessions/#comment-14165</link>

		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Jman]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Thu, 23 Jun 2016 17:02:08 +0000</pubDate>
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					<description><![CDATA[Sales concessions should be adjusted like all other grid adjustments - based on a pairing of the sales used. Dont forget when you remove a sales concession from a comp you are making an extraordinary assumption that the sale would have sold for less than sales price, which you will probably have virtually no data to prove or support that. In addition are you ready to say that the lender&#039;s and investor&#039;s LTV is not correct and that the appraisal on the sale is incorrect and inflated? Is there some mortgage fraud involved?]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Sales concessions should be adjusted like all other grid adjustments &#8211; based on a pairing of the sales used. Dont forget when you remove a sales concession from a comp you are making an extraordinary assumption that the sale would have sold for less than sales price, which you will probably have virtually no data to prove or support that. In addition are you ready to say that the lender&#8217;s and investor&#8217;s LTV is not correct and that the appraisal on the sale is incorrect and inflated? Is there some mortgage fraud involved?</p>
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		<title>
		By: Mike Ford		</title>
		<link>https://appraisersblogs.com/appraisal/concessions/#comment-11122</link>

		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Mike Ford]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sun, 01 Jun 2014 02:38:24 +0000</pubDate>
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					<description><![CDATA[Its not that complicated people! Read the old R41B and R41C regulations on cash equivalence. Net to seller.]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Its not that complicated people! Read the old R41B and R41C regulations on cash equivalence. Net to seller.</p>
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		By: William		</title>
		<link>https://appraisersblogs.com/appraisal/concessions/#comment-9076</link>

		<dc:creator><![CDATA[William]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Wed, 06 Feb 2013 22:37:37 +0000</pubDate>
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					<description><![CDATA[I want to know do you make a grid adjustment for concession for the comparables and if so is that a negative adjustment on the sales grid for the comparables. Please advise]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>I want to know do you make a grid adjustment for concession for the comparables and if so is that a negative adjustment on the sales grid for the comparables. Please advise</p>
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